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I just finished doing the AAMC biology question pack #1. @mcatjelly is spot-on. The only thing you might be able to extrapolate a hypothetical score from would be a full length exam or a section test (a full 95 minute or 90 min section on its own). Even then, it would just be a gross estimation, especially given that no one can know the raw-to-scaled score for the new MCAT. It will take multiple
AAMC released practice tests with their own scales to be able to get at an average conversion like there was for the old MCAT. The AAMC science Q packs are all meant to be a way to reinforce science content. It means next to nothing as a predictor of a scaled score on the real thing. No single MCAT section would test all that bio. Where's the biochemistry, the orgo? Just use you % correct as a good indicator of: 1) Are you remembering your science content Nothing more. Right now the best we have is the excellent google doc set up
HERE Read it with a grain of salt as this small, mostly unverified data set is in NO WAY
statistically meaningful. However it does provide anecdotal evidence as to your possible score given previous performance and that is better than nothing. Good luck! Last edited: Jul 10, 2015 MCAT Content / AAMC MCAT Biology Question Pack 1 Solutions AAMC QPack Bio1 [Web]Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 1 1) First thing I’m doing is deciding whether I need the information in the passage to answer this question, or whether this is a pseudo-discrete, or standalone question. Even though the passage talked about the sodium pump, I’m leaning toward using my external knowledge of the sodium pump. AAMC loves doing this where they’ll ask you a question that’s tangentially related to the passage, but in reality it’s just a standalone question you can answer using your general knowledge. From our content outline we know that the sodium potassium pump is the most common example of active transport on the MCAT. We have two potassium ions moved into the cell, and three sodium ions moved out of the cell. The pump creates gradients in nerve cells, allowing for electrical signals. The pump is also used in the kidneys to maintain ion balance in the body. It also helps maintain blood pressure, and plays a role in cardiac contractions. Which is to say the pump is obviously important throughout the body. We’re going to try and find an answer that matches one of these main functions.
2) In other words, we saw swelling in the passage. This comes down to knowing the reason behind the swelling of the cells when they were placed in distilled water. During your initial readthrough you always want to visualize any experimental setup, especially a visual description like this. If you can’t visualize
the experiment, you’re not understanding it clearly.
3) In simple words, we want to explain whether the sodium pump causes action potentials along neurons. This is going to be similar to question 1 because it’s almost like a standalone, or discrete, question. What do we know about action potentials? Neural impulses occur when a stimulus depolarizes a cell membrane, prompting an action potential which sends an “all or nothing” signal. Transmission of a signal within a neuron is carried out by the opening and closing of voltage-gated ion channels. This, in turn, creates an action potential. Once the threshold potential is reached, the neuron depolarizes and opens the voltage-gated calcium channels. When depolarization is finished, the cell resets its membrane voltage back to resting potential. So how does our sodium-potassium pump fit in here? The sodium-potassium pump maintains the resting potential, once it’s established. It’s not the direct cause of the action potentials along neurons. We’re focused on causation here.
4) We could reference the equation in the passage, but first we’re going to answer this question using 1) our general knowledge and knowing the number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule in glycolysis, and 2) how many sodium ions are transported out of the cell by the sodium potassium pump per molecule of ATP used. The answer is as simple as a net production of 2 ATP, which also means
6 total molecules of sodium.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 2 5) We’re focused on the causation of gastric cancer here, and relating to the proliferating cells. The passage mentions there is a correlation between H. pylori and gastric cancer. But now we want to explain why increased proliferation of mucosal cells would lead to gastric cancer. The reason for this should theoretically be specific mutations, or presence of genes that lead to cancer. We’re expecting these mucosal cells to be responsible in some way.
6) This is something the author brings up in the passage, and now we’re asked to explain the statement. That means we’re going
to have to understand how antibodies typically work, and why they might not work in a particular environment or against a specific antigen.
7) The author mentions the differences between strains of H. Pylori. That’s going to be the key to answering this question. The passage says “Genetic studies of H. pylori have identified genes that are expressed in different strains of this bacterium. One gene, vacA, encodes a toxin. Expression of another gene, cagA, leads to inflammation and may be related to the genesis of gastric cancer”. So what does this tell us? Not all H. pylori strains may possess the same genes. In fact, we get two examples of individual genes that are found in specific strains. Both strains seem like they can affect humans, but affect them differently.
8) This involves going back to the passage and noting the effect of seeing the cagA gene in our H. pylori strain. The passage says says “Expression of another gene, cagA, leads to inflammation and may be related to the genesis of gastric cancer”. So our answer is going to deal with this inflammation, and possible with the beginning of gastric cancer as well. When an inflammatory response is triggered, usually white blood cells will fight any infection or debris. So we’re expecting inflammation followed by a defensive response.
9) The author says in the passage “There is a relationship between H. pylori infection and cancer.” But then immediately after says “Infected individuals have a two-fold increased risk of gastric cancer, although >75% of patients with active infections do not develop cancer.” This essentially means less than a quarter of patients with active infections do develop cancer. Most patients have been infected, but they do not actually develop cancer.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 3 10) I want to go back to the passage to find a possible cause of cellular dehydration that’s related to hyperglycemia. The passage says “hyperglycemia (high glucose concentration) may protect tissues and organs by depressing the freezing point of body fluids, thereby facilitating the dehydration of cells and other secondary cryoprotective mechanisms”. So, what is this high glucose concentration doing to promote cellular dehydration? The high glucose concentration is to protect the tissues and organs of the frogs by depressing the freezing point of body fluids. Said differently, that means the freezing point of the fluid is lowered by the increased glucose concentration. What this also means, is the concentration of glucose in the fluid is higher than that of the tissues and tissue cells. That means osmosis. Water is going to leave the tissue cells to maintain the proper concentration gradient. That also means the water that leaves the cells and freezes will be extracellular.
11) This means we’ll use our knowledge of normal glucose regulation, and compare to what’s going on in these species of animals. We already touched on this in our previous questions, but hyperglycemia means high glucose concentration. Normally, the body adjusts for this elevated glucose concentration. Excess glucose in the blood is converted into glycogen and is stored in the liver or muscles through glycogenesis. The insulin hormone stimulates this synthesis of glycogen. When blood glucose levels rise, insulin stimulates glycogen synthase to form glycogen, from glucose. Glucagon-acts opposite to insulin. Glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen whenever blood glucose level falls. So in this case, we’d expect the elevated blood glucose levels would cause insulin to stimulate glycogen synthase, and form glycogen.
12) The fact that the question stem mentions we should look at Figure 1 is probably a good reason to flip back to the passage. But theoretically, we should be able to use general knowledge to answer this question. Just because a Table, Figure, or Molecule is referenced in a question stem, doesn’t always mean it’s necessary to flip back to the passage. When looking at Figure 1, the vertical dotted lines represents the onset of freezing and thawing in all 5 responses. And those happen at 0 and 24 hours respectively. So we want to know in our second chart (the “heart rate” chart), why is there still a pulse for several hours after the onset of ice formation. And how does this help glucose carry out its role. What is glucose’s role? We were told in the passage that elevated glucose may protect tissues and organs by depressing the freezing point of body fluids, thereby facilitating the dehydration of cells and other secondary cryoprotective mechanisms. Glucose is essentially circulating through the body, and allowing for dehydration of cells throughout the body. How does that work? The presence of this elevated glucose concentration leads to osmosis, and water moving extracellularly.
13) Keep in mind we can pick more than 1 option here. Even though the question stem says “according to the passage,” there’s really no need to go back to our passage here, and that’s perfectly fine. The goal is to read the passage in such a way that you understand the big picture and all of the moving parts. It’s not always mandatory to go back to the passage, even if a question says something like “according to the passage.” There is dehydration of cells, and we expect ice in the extracellular fluid. That’s all this question is asking us-which of our answer choices is extracellular? Blood plasma and lymph. Which of our answer choices is intracellular? Cytoplasm. The author mentions “Formation of ice within cells disrupts structural organization and metabolic function, and ultimately causes cell death.” If we have frozen cytoplasm, we have a lot of big issues. That means our correct answer choices are options 2 and 3, because option 1 would be catastrophic. Answer choice D contains the combination we’re looking for: II and III only. All of the other answer choices can be eliminated for being incorrect. 14) We essentially want to know when the frog’s heartbeat is at zero, and it’s using anaerobic respiration. We can look at Figure 1 in the passage, and I already said anaerobic respiration was when the frog’s heartbeat was at zero. What does the heartbeat being at zero entail? It means the heart isn’t circulating oxygenated blood. And anaerobic respiration happens when oxygen is absent. Look at Figure 1, and we’re focusing on heart rate, because that’s going to tell us when there’s oxygenated blood circulating or not. When do we have our beats/minute equal to zero? It looks like from hour 12, to a bit past hour 24. Maybe around 25 or 26 hours.
15) Top bar graph says survival percentage; bottom bar graph says plasma hemoglobin. We have three different test groups. We have one group which was injected with saline only, and it’s the bars shown on the left side of the two graphs. In the middle, we had saline, and 650 millimoles/liter of glucose. On the right, we had saline and 1500 millimoles/liter of glucose. Top graph we see that the saline only frogs did not survive. The frogs with the lesser glucose concentration had a roughly 40% survival rate. And the frogs with the higher glucose concentration had a roughly 80% survival rate. This injection of glucose increases the survival rate of the frogs in freezing temperatures. But, we want to know about the cryoprotective role specifically, not just the survival rate. Bottom bar graph shows plasma hemoglobin. We want as little hemoglobin as possible in the plasma. That’s because hemoglobin is carried in red blood cells. If we have elevated hemoglobin levels in the plasma, that means the red blood cells ruptured or were damaged. There’s more plasma hemoglobin in the “saline only” group. Followed by the “650 millimole/liter glucose” group.” And there’s very little plasma hemoglobin in our last group with the highest exogenous glucose levels. A higher level of exogenous glucose leads to a higher survival rate. It correlates to a lower concentration of plasma hemoglobin. And there’s less cell death in the group with the highest exogenous glucose levels.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Questions
16-20 16) We’re going to consider when water is lost through the skin, or in other words, perspiration, or sweating. Sweating, or perspiration, is a method of evaporative cooling. Why does this happen? Thermoregulation, or hormonal changes. Sweating is the production of fluids secreted by the sweat glands in the skin of mammals. Humans have two types of sweat glands: eccrine glands and apocrine glands. Eccrine glands are the major sweat glands of the human body, found in virtually all skin. They produce a clear, odorless substance, sweat, that’s primarily water and sodium chloride. Sodium chloride is reabsorbed in the duct to reduce salt loss. Eccrine glands are active in thermoregulation and are stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system. Apocrine sweat glands are inactive until they’re stimulated by hormonal changes in puberty. Apocrine sweat glands are mainly thought to function as olfactory pheromones. The stimulus for the secretion of apocrine sweat glands is adrenaline. So, we’re looking for an answer mentioning either increasing the need for evaporative cooling, or adrenaline stimulating secretion of apocrine sweat glands.
17) In other words, what can we say about lipases because they can catalyze the hydrolysis of fats and other carboxylic acid esters? We’re focusing on the fact the test-maker explicitly tells us about lipases catalyzing the hydrolysis of both fats and carboxylic acid esters. Gastric lipase is the most common lipase we encounter on the MCAT. It’s secreted by chief cells in the stomach, and it helps in the digestion of lipids. Lipase is a type of esterase, which means it splits esters into an acid and an alcohol through hydrolysis. We can get into some enzyme specificity here as well. Enzymes are suited to bind to a particular substrate to help catalyze a biochemical reaction. In this case, the author brings up different molecules that will undergo the same hydrolysis. Main takeaway is lipases catalyze hydrolysis of multiple molecules. Ultimately, same reaction type, but not just one substrate only.
18) We can actually use a visual to help us answer this question. The F factor plasmid contains genes that allow the plasmids DNA to be transferred between cells. The F stands for fertility-it allows genes to be transferred from one bacterium carrying the factor, to another bacterium that previously lacked the factor. That’s done through conjugation. Conjugation’s the transfer of genetic material between two bacterial cells in direct contact. We have a breakdown of conjugation above. If you need to brush up on this material, or want to look closer at the image, I implore you to check out the science content outline on our website.
19) I want to emphasize the word “some” in the question stem. What makes that word so important? Not all of the offspring displayed these recessive traits; some still displayed the dominant traits. The only way we can have both dominant and recessive phenotypes, is if the offspring inherited a recessive allele for each gene from both parents. What that means is, at least one parent has one dominant allele for both genes-meaning heterozygous. How do we know that? Because we have a mix of dominant and recessive phenotypes. The recessive allele for both traits has to be inherited from both parents. That means one parent has to be VvEe, and the other parent has a few options. The 2nd parent can either be homozygous recessive (vvee), heterozygous for one trait and homozygous recessive for the second (Vvee OR vvEe), or Heterozygous for both (VvEe). That’s the only way to get the experimental results.
20) Contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles causes the lungs to expand. How does that happen? We create a negative intrapleural pressure when the diaphragm contracts. That negative pressure causes the lungs to expand. We have higher volume, which is consistent with Boyle’s Law. That negative pressure causes air from the atmosphere to passively come into the lungs.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 4 21) There was no explicit mention of rRNA in the passage, so we’re going to use our general knowledge about genes and rRNA to answer this question. Extrachromosomal means these genes are found off the chromosomes. We know chromosomes are replicated and passed on to daughter cells. If these rRNA genes are not found on chromosomes, then they end up replicating by themselves to pass from generation to generation.
22) This boils down to explaining why there’s an extra S phase seen in small macronuclei before division. The passage says “To minimize fluctuations in DNA content, small macronuclei undergo an additional S phase before division, and large macronuclei eliminate an S phase.” Smaller macronuclei will undergo an additional S phase. What normally happens in the S Phase? That’s the synthesis phase, where replication takes place. We have additional DNA replication in small macronuclei. But no S phase in larger macronuclei. So the larger nuclei have no need for replication. What did we say was the difference? The smaller macronuclei need additional DNA to properly execute amitotic division. The larger macronuclei already have enough.
23) First thing we want to note is that cytoplasm is distributed unequally during oogenesis. The zygote that results from fertilization needs a majority of the cytoplasm. One mature ovum is formed, and we have three polar bodies. What do we know about macronuclei? We actually mentioned in our last question as well, there’s uneven distribution of macronuclear DNA during amitotic cell division.
24) This answer is going to come from the passage and what we’re told about the macronuclei and binary fission. First thing we want to note from the passage is the macronucleus is 45-ploid. The suffix “ploid” is telling us the number of sets of chromosomes in a cell. We have a 45-ploid macronucleus which we’re told is the site of gene expression. Question stem says a heterozygous macronucleus undergoes repeated binary fission. The last paragraph in the passage tells us about binary fission and each daughter cell receiving an uneven amount of DNA. This amitotic division isn’t something we cover on our content outline. But we are told there’s an uneven amount of DNA.
25) This is an open-ended question. Sometimes we can predict what the answers going to be, but for this question we’ll break down the question stem and ultimately find the best answer by going through our 4 choices. We’re going to look at Figure 1, Step 6 and see whether the eliminated DNA sequences can be involved in transcription, translation, meiosis, or ribosome production. We have step 6 from our passage here, and our possible answer choices on the right. Let’s stick to what we know. Macronuclei will usually control metabolic and developmental functions. Essentially all somatic functions. We’re essentially eliminating DNA sequences that wouldn’t contribute to this purpose. It’s as simple as that. Glancing at our answer choices, we know transcription, translation, and ribosome production are all essential for protein synthesis. We can eliminate meiosis as the odd answer out. We group transcription, translation, and ribosome production together, and said the DNA sequences are not involved in meiosis. Answer choice C is going to be our best answer choice here. 26) A few things we want to note. The micronucleus is typically for reproduction, and has genetic information. Macronucleus is the site of gene expression and will control all somatic functions. We also know that during conjunction the macronucleus arises from the micronucleus in step 6. So we’re essentially only focusing on the micronucleus to answer this question. Let’s draw out our punnett square to predict our percentage that’s recessive. We’ll call the dominant allele capital A, and the recessive allele lower case a. We fill out our square. We have a homozygous dominant, two heterozygous where we’ll observe the dominant allele, and one double recessive. So our percentage is going to be 25%. We can quickly glance at our numbers and see they’re not particularly close to one another, and our predicted value matches answer choice B. Answer choice C corresponds to the Aa genotype. Answer choices A and D would not be possible for any genotype. Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 5 27) The passage says “The antisense molecules will bind specifically to the sense mRNA and prevent the production of the natural gene product.” The author tells us the antisense molecules which are complementary to portions of the sense mRNA, bind to that sense mRNA. Why do the antisense molecules bind the sense mRNA? To prevent the production of the natural gene product. Said differently, to prevent translation. What is translation? Translation is the process by which a protein is synthesized from mRNA. Without the input of that messenger RNA template translation can’t take place as normal.
28) We’re going to explain how the antisense drugs work, and how the gene works as well. What’s the target gene? It’s that harmful gene that we don’t want expressed. The antisense RNA is meant to bind the sense mRNA and prevent translation, like we went over in our previous question. We want the antisense RNA to be expressed any time the target mRNA is expressed.
29) Keep in mind, the disorder is caused by a mutation in the gene for an enzyme. We’re told PKU is caused by a mutation in a gene that eliminates enzymatic activity of phenylalanine hydroxylase. What does that mean? We don’t have a properly functioning enzyme to break down the amino acid phenylalanine. Would an antisense drug help individuals with PKU? Normally The antisense molecules bind the sense mRNA and prevent translation. Unfortunately, preventing the production of the enzyme would not fix the fact that the enzyme itself is not working correctly. If we inhibit the production of the enzyme, we still are unable to break down phenylalanine. We need a remedy for the disordered enzymes themselves, not prevent the enzymes from being made.
30) We know the antisense nucleic acids are complementary to the sense mRNA. We want to write out our antisense molecule so it’s complementary and antiparallel to the sense molecule. We know nitrogenous base A pairs with U, and G pairs with C. Our new strand will be antiparallel, so let’s write it out 3’ to 5’. We have G, C, U, A, U, G as our sequence. If we want to write it out from the customary 5’ to 3’, that would be G, U, A, U, C, G.
31) To answer this question, we need to pick a way that involves delivering the antisense gene in a way that the gene can be incorporated into cells. The antisense gene needs to be present to ensure it can bind specifically to the sense mRNA and possibly prevent translation, as necessary. Typically, how this is done in gene therapy is by inserting or incorporating genes into a virus. That virus is then able to deliver the gene into a chromosome. Ultimately, we find an option that finds a way to incorporate the gene into the chromosome.
32) We’re presented a hypothetical situation here that normally doesn’t happen according to our passage. So if mRNA is not degraded by intracellular agents, then how would things differ? We’ll use the passage to see where the author talks about this degradation. It says “A problem encountered in the design of antisense drugs was that oligonucleotides may only persist for a matter of minutes before they are degraded by cellular processes.” So we’re essentially getting rid of this issue that we see in sentence 1. Now we’re saying these oligonucleotides don’t degrade in a matter of minutes. What would that mean? Well for starters, more mRNA, because it’s not being degraded. Also, there’s not the same turnover in mRNA. We’re not degrading at the same rate as before, and protein expression can change.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 6 33) We’ll reference the passage to see where the author mentions the breathing and heart rates, then we’ll use our general knowledge to explain the increase. It says “Although she was in excellent physical condition from daily swimming in the ocean, she noticed that the first time she went diving, she experienced an elevated pulse and ventilation rate.” In the passage we find out that Sarah is in excellent physical condition and she’s also used to swimming in the ocean daily. It’s likely Sarah shouldn’t have a very elevated pulse or ventilation during any non-strenuous activities. Her body also shouldn’t have any abnormal response to being in water. The passage also says “By the third time she went diving, her heart and breathing rate were no longer elevated.” This is also strange because it was a very quick change from elevated heart rate and breathing rate to a normal level. If it was the actual activity causing the elevated rates, we should’ve seen a more gradual change back to normal levels, if at all. What’s the reasoning for this? It’s likely the first few times she was either excited or anxious, and that caused the elevated heart and breathing rate.
34) Similar to our previous question, we want to explain the reason for elevated heart and breathing rates. But this time we’re focused on the snow skiing trip, and a prolonged increase in rates. The passage says “Again, she noticed that the first time she went skiing, her heart and ventilation rate were faster than usual. Although it was not as elevated by the end of the first week, her heart and breathing rates were still higher than usual.” So unlike when she went skin diving, Sarah’s heart and breathing rates remain somewhat elevated. We have to explain why that is. This could mean Sarah gets the same thrill every time she attempts skiing. It could also be that skiing is more strenuous than the activities she’s used to doing. She also may be having a tough time acclimating to the elevation in the mountains of Colorado. Considering that her heart and breathing rate dropped to normal after skin-diving a few times, we doubt it’s the thrill of the new experience after a full week. We find out later in the passage that there was not a significant different in the amount of work performed between skin diving and skiing, so it’s not that skiing is more strenuous. Our last prediction is that it could be the elevation in Colorado. The lower air pressure means taking additional breaths to get the same amount of oxygen.
35) We’ll need to think about the excretory system and osmoregulation, and how different enzymes regulate water levels in the body. The excretory system helps regulate blood pressure and water levels. In this case, we’re seeing that heart and breathing rates are high, and there’s less water absorption. That typically means blood pressure is high. But let’s break down the question so we know how we come up with that conclusion. Usually in our science classes, we think about what happens with osmoregulation when blood pressure is low. So that’s what we’ll do here to start. The way we usually think about it is: Blood volume is low: Renin stimulates the production of angiotensin I, which is converted into angiotensin II. Next, Aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex. That’s induced by angiotensin II. That causes the tubules of the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water into the blood, and increases blood volume and blood pressure. But the increased excitement, heart rate, and breathing rate in Sarah’s example, is the exact opposite. That means in Sarah we’re expecting the body to adjust by decreasing blood volume and blood pressure by decreasing reabsorption of sodium and water into the blood. The increased volume of urine corresponds to increased blood pressure and increased blood volume.
36) We’re asked which of the 3 injuries listed would be consistent with a level of myoglobin in the urine, and remember we can pick more than one option here. I know from going through the content outline, myoglobin is the oxygen binding molecule in muscle and organs. Myoglobin binds oxygen tighter than hemoglobin- which is the oxygen binding molecule in blood. If we have myoglobin in the urine, that means our injury is in muscles, or an organ. Of our choices, options 2 and 3 correspond to muscles and organs. We don’t find myoglobin in the bone. That corresponds to answer choice D: II and III only. The physician detected myoglobin in the urine because of a damaged organ, like the kidney, or in damaged muscles. Answer choices A-C are all incorrect because of what we said during our breakdown. Always be careful with this format of question. Answer choice A includes “I. Broken bone” but we know that answer is incomplete. That’s the reason you should always look at every answer choice, even if it’s briefly. 37) This is going to come straight from our general knowledge. This could easily be a standalone or discrete question, but it’s loosely related to the topic covered in the passage, so it’s linked to the passage. Get your content down if you haven’t already so questions like this are automatic. -Involuntary respiration is controlled by the respiratory centers of the upper brainstem. Chemoreceptors will detect blood pH levels and adjust ventilation rate. -The cerebellum governs balance and fine motor movements. Its main function is maintaining coordination throughout the body. -The hypothalamus controls the basic drives for hunger, thirst, and sexual attraction. It also releases hormones and regulates emotional responses. We’re looking for an answer that lists: brainstem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus. We already broke down the question and the reasoning for our three choices. Our breakdown matches answer choice D. Answer choices A-C contradict our breakdown, and are incorrect. 38) This could also be another standalone question. We want to explain vasoconstriction and vasodilation, and why someone’s vessels might quickly dilate, even in cold temperatures. The question stem mentions Sarah’s blood vessels were usually constricted in the cold temperature. That makes sense, it decreases blood flow to skin and helps minimize heat loss from warm blood and maintains a normal internal temperature. By why can’t they constantly be constricted? Why do her blood vessels occasionally dilate? The vessels constantly being constricted leads to superficial tissues to be deprived of the necessary oxygen and nutrients. The body has to adjust to this through the occasional dilation. Dilation is used to allow for greater than normal blood flow throughout the body. And providing these cells and the rest of the body with sufficient nutrients and oxygen.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Questions 39-43 39) To solve this problem, we want to point to the figure and show where neurons involved in feeling pain would theoretically be found. We have the painful stimulus shown as #1; that’s the actual stubbed toe. We have synapses at 2 and 3. Finally, we have the efferent nerve terminal at 4, which we can see is in the muscle. We’re looking for a combination of 2 different locations according to our possible answers. To finish, we’ll have to go over how reflex arcs work. When we have a stimulus like a stubbed toe, or a hot object, for example, there’s a reflex. The reflex arc is the path taken by the nerve impulses from the stimulus, to sensory neuron, to motor neuron, to reflex muscle movement. Looking at our figure, we want to know where we’d find neurons that involve feeling pain. For this pain to actually be recognized, we’d need a pathway traveling up the CNS. Location 1, like the author shows, is where the stimulus is. That happens from the toe hitting an object. But we need a way to get to the CNS. That would come from neurons at positions 2 and 3. We need to add neurons at these points that would get that signal to the CNS, and ultimately the brain, where we actually perceive pain. Position 4 is the neuromuscular junction. It wouldn’t make sense to add additional neurons here that go to the CNS. Answer choice A says additional neurons could be placed at II and III which matches our breakdown. Quick side note: we were confident about position 4 not being a possible answer. That means we have another bit of information validating our answer. Answer choices B-D all contain option 4 so we were able to eliminate all of those answer choices and give us more confidence in answer choice A as our best answer. 40) To answer this question, we’ll go over what constitutes a eukaryote, and specifically which characteristics mark fungi as eukaryotes. What are the defining characteristics of eukaryotic cells? 1) A membrane-bound nucleus, a central cavity surrounded by membrane that houses the cell’s genetic material. 2) A number of membrane-bound organelles, compartments with specialized functions that float in the cytosol. 3) Mitotic division which results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent cell. That means we want something along the lines of: fungi have a membrane bound nucleus and organelles, and undergo mitotic division.
41) Remember we’re focused on mammals. Mitosis and meiosis are both forms of division of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. Mitosis and meiosis share some similarities but also significant differences, and that’s where we’re focused. Biggest difference in mammals is that mitosis produces genetically identical diploid daughter cells, and meiosis produces genetically different haploid cells.
42) To answer this question, we want to find one of the answer choices that is not a function of mammalian skin. That means 3 will be functions of mammalian skin, and 1 will not. Biggest functions of the skin are protection, osmoregulation, and maintaining homeostasis. The skin provides an overlaying protective barrier from the environment and pathogens. It also contributes to the adaptive immune system. Along the same lines of protection, the skin helps protect our body’s internal structures from physical, chemical, biological, radiological, and thermal damage. We’re going to focus on protection, osmoregulation, and maintaining homeostasis.
43) To answer this question we’ll go through what we know about inbreeding, and the fitness of a population. Inbreeding is the mating of closely related individuals. That can have an undesirable effect of bringing together harmful recessive mutations. These mutations can cause abnormalities and susceptibility to disease. Inbreeding increases the frequency of homozygotes, decreases heterozygotes, and decreases genetic diversity in general.
Even if two individuals have a single recessive allele, there is that chance that their offspring will express the recessive traits-just due to probability. That makes this a superior answer choice to answer choices B and C, which were neutral, but didn’t directly answer the question being asked. We’re left with our best answer, answer choice D: incidence of expression of deleterious recessive traits. Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 7 44) The passage says “The Tm is the maximum rate of transport (mg/min) at which a substance can be reabsorbed by the kidney.” Immediately after it says “That is, if the filtration rate of a substance exceeds its Tm, the substance will begin to appear in the urine.” Combining those two sentences, we can say that once this maximum rate of transport is reached, we’ve essentially saturated the kidneys with the substance, so there can’t be additional absorption. And what happens when a substance isn’t reabsorbed? The substance will instead be excreted from the body. We’ll start seeing the substance in the urine.
45) We’re looking for a quantitative value here: the amount of glucose we’re expecting in the urine as a rate, given normal conditions. We can reference the passage for the exact value of Tm for glucose in a normal human. We’ll compare that value to this tubular load of approximately 125 mg/min. The passage says “The Tm for glucose averages 320 mg/min in an adult human.” We’re given the average tubular transport maximum for glucose here. Having too much glucose in the urine is usually the sign of health issues. We’re expecting this 320 mg/min to be much higher than the normal filtered amount of glucose we typically see. That means if we have a smaller tubular load of glucose, like in our question stem, it’s all likely to just be reabsorbed. That means we’re expecting 0 mg/min glucose in the urine under normal conditions. We came up with an exact value, and none of our answer choices here are very close to 0 mg/min except answer choice A. In fact, they are all much higher than what we would expect. 46) We can answer this question using our general knowledge, and how blood pressure relates to clearance and the formation of urine. We won’t need to rely much on the passage. Glomerular filtration rate (or GFR) is the volume of glomerular filtrate formed per minute by the kidneys. A higher GFR means the kidneys are filtering blood faster. Naturally, that rate increases due to high blood pressure. When blood pressure is lower, there’s more reabsorption. Why is that? Blood is being filtered more slowly, allowing for more reabsorption of solutes like substance A. Think back to the passage, there’s a tubular transport maximum of a substance that affects plasma clearance. That Tm is the maximum rate of transport at which a substance can be reabsorbed by the kidney. When the GFR is lower, there’s more reabsorption possible.
47) We can answer this question using the passage, and interpreting Figure 1. I’ve got Experiment 1 and Figure 1 from the passage here. We’re told in the question stem that we have equal concentrations of Substance A and glucose in the plasma. So, let’s go along our x-axis, which is concentration in the plasma, and mark 8 mg/mL. What do we notice? We have a concentration of roughly 2 mg/mL in the urine of Substance A. We have no glucose concentration in the urine whatsoever. What does that tell us? The kidney will be clearing Substance A from the plasma more rapidly. We’re expecting glucose to be reabsorbed at this concentration.
48) I want to answer this question using the passage, and interpreting Figure 1. I’ll find the approximate plasma concentration of glucose where Tm is reached. Note, the answers are given in units of mg/mL. See above: we have Experiment 1 and Figure 1 from the passage here. We want to find Tm, which, from the passage, is the maximum rate of transport (mg/min) at which a substance can be reabsorbed by the kidney. We also know, if the filtration rate of glucose exceeds its Tm, then glucose will begin to appear in the urine. In other words, we want to find the plasma concentration at which glucose first begins to appear in the urine. This is as simple as looking at our graph and finding the X-intercept. At a plasma concentration of 10 mg/mL, we begin to see there is glucose in the urine. We solved for an exact value (10 mg/mL). None of our answer choices are especially close to one another, and the units are all the same. Pick the correct answer, answer choice B: a plasma concentration of 10 mg/mL. Make sure to not pick answer choice A, which incorrectly shows the X-intercept of the Substance A line instead of the glucose line. 49) I’ll attack this question by using the passage, and interpreting Experiment 2. I’ll also have to know the relationship between blood pressure and urinary output. Let’s go back to Experiment 2: This excerpt shows the details of Experiment 2. We’re told “The second dosage, which was much higher than the normal physiological concentration, affected urine output by increasing blood pressure.” We’re not focused on the ADH itself, but rather those last 7 words in this paragraph. How the increased blood pressure affects urinary output. We’re going to revisit something we covered in question 46. Glomerular filtration rate (or GFR) is the volume of glomerular filtrate formed per minute by the kidneys. A higher GFR means the kidneys are filtering blood faster. Naturally, high blood pressure causes an increase in the flow of fluid through the kidney’s system. That will also mean more urinary output because there’s less absorption. On the other hand, when blood pressure is lower, there’s more reabsorption. Why is that? Blood is being filtered more slowly, allowing for more reabsorption. Ultimately, the higher blood pressure increased the GFR and that decreased the absorption by the kidneys.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 8 50) We need to reference and interpret Figure 1 from the passage (I tried my best to ensure the writing here is a proper size. It may help to have the passage pulled up separately if the numbers are hard to see). We ultimately want to show that the effects of ACH are seen when endothelium is intact. Above I have Figure 1 from the passage. We need to explain how we can conclude that intact endothelium is necessary for the relaxation of smooth muscle when ACH is applied. Top graph shows our aorta with endothelium. Bottom graph shows aorta without endothelium. There’s norepinephrine added to both on the left side of these graphs that causes constriction. Theoretically, this tension should go away with the addition of ACH. We see that when an ACH concentration of 10^-7 M lowers the tension in the aorta with endothelium. But if we look at the bottom graph, there’s no concentration of ACH that causes tension to decrease. Only the sample with endothelium is responsive to ACH, and we can see that right as the ACH with concentration 10^-7 M is added to the sample.
51) Once again, We’ll need to reference and interpret Figure 1 from the passage. We ultimately want to show the sensitivity of the aortic smooth muscle to ACH. This question is a bit open-ended, so we can quickly glance at our answer choices. Normally I don’t like doing this before breaking down the question because then we approach the question with biases. But in this case, we need to narrow down our thinking a bit to know what the test maker is asking. It looks like we want to know how the presence of norepinephrine and the presence of the endothelium affect ACH sensitivity. First thing we want to note is there is nothing conclusive we can determine from the presence of norepinephrine. Adding norepinephrine causes tension in the two rings, but that tension was necessary to test the effect of ACH. We’re not focused on the combination of ACH and norepinephrine. In terms of sensitivity of the aortic smooth muscle to ACH: ACH concentration of 10^-7M is what caused the tension to decrease significantly in the ring with endothelium. As far as the ring without endothelium, there’s no response to any of the shown concentrations of ACH.
52) We need to reference Figure 1 once again, and this is actually something we’ve touched on while going through our previous questions. One more time we have Figure 1 from the passage. We want to point out the range where muscle tension is most sensitive to ACH. We’ve discussed this at length already. The ring without endothelium isn’t sensitive to ACH in the concentrations given in our figure. The ring with endothelium is most sensitive to ACH at a concentration of 10^-7 Molar. Notice the steep slope after the 10^-7 Molar ACH is added. We want our answer to be closest to that number.
53) This could easily be a standalone or discrete question even. It’s only slightly related to the topics in the passage, so it’s included here. Blood pressure is the pressure of the blood against the walls of blood vessels. What determines this value? We have heart rate and stroke volume that determine cardiac output. We also have the tension in the blood vessels that can either reduce or increase blood flow. Vasoconstriction can reduce blood flow and increase blood pressure, for example.
54) This is another question that could easily be a standalone question. We’re going to have to know about vasoconstriction obviously, and when changes in blood flow are necessary. We know vasoconstriction affects blood flow, and as a result, blood pressure. Generalized vasoconstriction usually results in an increase in systemic blood pressure. But vasoconstriction may also occur in specific tissues, causing a localized reduction in blood flow. That means we want a situation in which we have a decrease in blood flow, or an increase in blood pressure.
55) We can go back to our passage and see what the author mentions about the competitive inhibitor and nitric oxide. Above I’ve pulled an excerpt from our passage, it tells us that L-NMMA is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme responsible for nitric oxide synthesis. If we inhibit this enzyme, then eventually we have no more nitric acid being made. What’s the function of nitric acid? It’s a relaxing substance and it causes adjacent arterial smooth muscle to relax. That means we can predict that the previously relaxing aortic ring will increase its tension, and not be relaxing long term.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 9 56) First thing I want to note here is we’re seeing a reduction of something. So an answer choice will be reduced following the uncoupling of oxidative metabolism from ATP. I’ll use some details from the passage, but most of this question is going to involve using our general knowledge. We know that when vertebrates ingest DDT, that DDT can accumulate in fatty deposits of the testis. The question stem says this can cause reduced fertility, and gives us a reason for this reduced fertility. It’s because of the uncoupling of oxidative metabolism from ATP production. Now, all we have to do is relate this uncoupling and decreased ATP production. Cellular respiration is a set of processes that convert energy from oxygen and nutrients to ATP. DDT uncouples the processes so that no ATP is produced: ATP synthesis in the mitochondria is inhibited. Without enough ATP, cells can’t carry out the reactions they need to function. So how do we relate that to the male reproductive system? Sperm cells are differentiated into the head, neck, middle piece, and tail. The middle piece of the sperm contains many mitochondria. And why is that? To generate ATP for motility. So that’s going to be our prediction for answering this question. Like I mentioned, we can use the information from the passage, but this question ultimately boils down to reasoning out how our content outline relates to what we read in the passage.
57) We can go back to the passage, then use our general knowledge to finally decide the correct answer. Above I’ve added paragraph 3 from the passage. We’re told burning and itching occur when dissolved DDT is applied to skin. We’re told sufficient levels of exposure can lead to pain. And ultimately, we’re given a hypothesis that tries to explain why these symptoms occur. That sentence is the key to answering our question. We asked the cause of the unpleasant symptoms, and this sentence says, “According to one hypothesis, these symptoms occur because DDT becomes incorporated into nerve cells, allowing Na+ to diffuse freely through axonal membranes.” We know from our content review that after resting potential is established, cells can be depolarized. What are we seeing here? These sodium ions can diffuse freely, and that’s what happens during depolarization. DDT is affecting neural impulses, or action potentials. And we’re seeing these neurons depolarized.
58) Be careful with the verbiage here. We’re going to find an answer choice that doesn’t reflect a function of the liver. It says “all of the following will be impaired EXCEPT.” The liver plays a vital role in the digestion of fats, and detoxifying the blood. It produces bile that’s required for the breakdown of fatty components of the food in the duodenum. The liver is mostly composed of hepatocytes which are involved in the synthesis of cholesterol, bile salts, and phospholipids as well. When there is excess glucose in the blood, it’s stored in the liver as glycogen.
59) The passage mentioned DDT disrupts normal cell function, division, and growth. But ultimately, the answer is going to come from our general knowledge. We’re going to have to decide which structure was most likely damaged to initiate cancer or cause a mutation. Mutations are changes that occur in DNA sequence. They can disrupt regular gene activity and cause diseases, like cancer. Cancer is caused by mutations occurring in several growth-controlling genes. So essentially, we’re looking at an answer that mentions an error during DNA replication, damage to DNA, or issues with genes.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Questions 60-64 60) In other words, what happens to pepsin when pH falls below 1.0? We have to think about what happens to enzymes, and proteins in general, under extreme conditions. We know from our content a protein’s function depends on the interactions within its folded structure. If the protein is subject to changes in temperature or pH, or exposed to certain chemicals, the internal interactions between the protein’s amino acids can be altered. That alteration may change the 3D shape/folding of the protein (tertiary structure). Although the amino acid sequence (also known as the protein’s primary structure) does not change, the protein’s shape or the way it is folded may change to an extent that it becomes dysfunctional, in which case the protein is considered denatured. That’s what we fear might happen to pepsin. At the optimum pH it has a specific 3D structure, but it can get disrupted at a pH below 1.0.
61) To answer this question, we have to consider what happens when there is an increase in albumin levels. We can think about the function of albumin in the body. Albumin is a water-soluble family of proteins. In the liver, fats can be mobilized and transported via this blood protein albumin (or other lipoproteins). Albumin’s also the major osmoregulatory protein in the blood. Normally, the concentration of solute in the blood and tissue fluid is the same. However, increases in albumin in the blood lead to an increase in interstitial fluid into the bloodstream, and therefore an increase in blood pressure. Think how osmosis works. Water flows from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration to get back to the same concentration of solute in the blood and tissue fluid.
62) To answer this question, we have to think about what happens following ingestion of excessive quantities of NaCl, and how the kidneys play a role. Kidneys regulate the osmotic pressure blood through filtration and purification, or osmoregulation. The kidneys also play a role in blood pressure control, using hormones that regulate blood pressure and water balance. The kidneys secrete renin directly into circulation that through a chain reaction results in the formation of angiotensin II, a potent vasoactive peptide that causes blood vessels to constrict, resulting in increased blood pressure. Angiotensin II stimulates the secretion of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal cortex which is what we’re focused on for this question. Aldosterone causes the tubules of the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water into the blood. This increases the volume of fluid in the body, which also increases blood pressure. If we have ingestion of excessive quantities of NaCl, we don’t have the same need to increase reabsorption of sodium, and we don’t expect an increase in the level of plasma aldosterone.
63) Like most standalone questions, this question relies almost exclusively on our knowledge of the content. Liver tissue has a high regenerative capacity; it’s often able to undergo extensive regeneration following injury or loss. This regeneration is due to cell division, and specifically mitosis. We want an answer choice that’s consistent with this.
64) A few initial observations we can make here: Cyclin concentration is shown along the Y-axis, while we alternate between interphase and mitosis along the X-axis. X-axis shows parts of the cell cycle. Cyclin concentration increases during interphase, but cyclin concentration decreases during mitosis. That means we have a buildup of cyclin in interphase and cyclin is broken down during mitosis. We want an answer choice that is consistent with Figure 1 and these changes in concentration of cyclin.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 10 65) The question stem explicitly says “According to the passage,” so in theory, we should answer this question using the information in the passage, and a breakdown of the experiment in the passage. From the passage, we know that by inhibiting bacterial synthesis and controlling the pH in the stomach, we can treat individuals presenting with stomach ulcers. With that being said, we likely also have to use general knowledge depending on the type of answer they’re looking for.
66) The passage says “H. Pylori was isolated from biopsies of ulcers; the organisms were found in greater than 95% of people with ulcers.” The also ties in something I talked about in the breakdown of Question 65 as well. I said that by inhibiting bacterial synthesis and controlling the pH in the stomach, we can treat individuals presenting with stomach ulcers. But for this question specifically, we’re focused on the cause of the stomach ulcers.
67) I’m going to reference the passage and specifically Figure 1, and explain what is happening in the figure. We can also take a quick peek at our answer choices before flipping back to the passage so we know what the question is asking for. We want an answer in terms of which strain grows fastest, and any resistance to streptomycin. We have our figure here, and we want to explain which strain grows fastest, and also reference the resistance to streptomycin. Look at the lines for Strain A (with the circles), and Strain A with streptomycin (with the squares). Adding streptomycin stunts the growth of Strain A. The untreated subculture grows much faster over time. The subculture treated with the antibiotic stagnates in terms of the number of cells. The lines for Strain B and the Strain B with streptomycin appear to be the same throughout the experiment. We see them overlap in the line that’s a triangle and X pattern. Strain B might be resistant to the antibiotic. Even after adding more streptomycin after 120 minutes, the two lines don’t deviate, and we don’t see a slowdown in growth in Strain B. Now compared to one another, we see the number of cells in the untreated Strain A rise much faster than the number of cells in the untreated strain B. That means Strain A grows more quickly than does Strain B.
68) We have another content question in disguise. As always, these can be tricky because they are located in a passage, which might mislead you into thinking you will need to use passage information to solve.
69) Once again, we’ll be focusing on causation and not correlation. We ultimately want to find a method to prove urease is necessary. One way we can do this is by trying to colonize the stomach when there is no urease present. If this is possible, then that invalidates the hypothesis. When we’re conducting a test like this, we want to start from an uninfected state.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 11 70) We’re given 3 different condition, and remember there may be more than one that we can pick. We can quickly reference the passage to see what causes rickets, and then we can go through each condition to see if it produces rickets. Here we have an excerpt from our passage that mentions rickets. It says rickets is “caused by insufficient vitamin D activity.” That means our answer is going to be caused to insufficient vitamin D activity. Key word here is caused. We also know from the passage, and from our general knowledge, that vitamin D stimulates calcium absorption and enhances the effect of parathyroid hormone. Let’s not get tricked. Those are additional effects of vitamin D. If there’s insufficient vitamin D activity, that would cause a production of rickets, a decrease in calcium absorption, and a decrease in the effect of parathyroid hormone. Those 3 are correlated to one another. Only insufficient vitamin D activity is an exact cause. Option 1 says metabolic deficiency of parathyroid hormone. We mentioned a lack of vitamin D would mean there’s not the same enhancement of the effect of parathyroid hormone. But this is not a direct cause of rickets. In fact, if parathyroid hormone was deficient, there would be a surplus of calcium because the bone matrix isn’t being broken down. That would mean higher mineralization, which is the opposite of rickets: Rickets corresponds to a lower ratio of mineral to organic matter. One thing I want you to note. Answer choices A through C all incorrectly list option I. What does that tell us? Our answer is likely going to be answer choice D. Answer choices A-C are all incorrect and contradict our prediction. We’re still going to go through our other answer choices for the sake of being thorough here though. Option 2 says Impairment of conversion of vitamin D to its active form. This is consistent with our main cause of rickets. The passage explicitly tells us that vitamin D functions like a hormone when in its activated form. That’s when vitamin D activity is normal. If we impair the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, we won’t have proper vitamin D activity. So, option II is going to be a good choice. It’s also consistent with what we just said about answer choice D being our best option. Option 3 says Inability of the active form of vitamin D to act on its target tissue. This is similar to option 2. Even if vitamin D is active, if it can’t act on its target tissue, we don’t have the proper vitamin D activity. That means this is also a correct option. Going through our 3 options verified our initial prediction. We can stick with our correct answer, answer choice D (options II and III). We can eliminate answer choices A through C. Those all contradicted what we were told in the passage. 71) In other words, how does vitamin D play a role in calcium supplementation? We can reference the passage to find the relationship between calcium and vitamin D. Then use that information to answer our question. We have an excerpt from the passage below that talks about vitamin D, and specifically the relationship with calcium. We’re told vitamin D acts on the small intestine to stimulate absorption of calcium. What does that tell us? If we supplement with calcium, that might not increase our blood plasma calcium levels, or our body’s calcium levels in general. We need to actually be able to absorb the supplemented calcium. How does that happen? Through vitamin D acting on the small intestine to stimulate absorption.
72) Once again, we’re given three different options and can pick more than one. We want to know which of the three options would increase, if there was a low level of calcium in the plasma. And said differently based on what was told to us in the passage: if we needed to increase bone resorption and increase plasma calcium levels. Osteoclasts break down bone cells, and minerals, like calcium, are released. That allows blood plasma calcium levels to increase. This matches what we’re looking for, so we’re keeping option 1 Parathyroid hormone actually encourages the formation and activity of osteoclasts. We already established osteoclasts break down bone cells and allow for plasma calcium levels to increase. This is also a correct answer choice. If we glance at our answer choices, we see each answer choice has a maximum of two choices. So what does that tell us? We’ll still look at option 3, but unless it’s a clearly better answer, we have a viable answer with options 1 and 2. Vitamin C. We said vitamin C is required for the synthesis of bone matrix, and bone formation. Bone formation is going to occur when there’s an overabundance of calcium in the blood, and calcium needs to be stored. This answer contradicts what’s asked of us in the question stem. We went through all of our answer choices already. I said options I and II are the only answers that correctly answer the question being asked. That means we can eliminate answer choices A, C, and D. Answer choice A is incomplete, and answer choice C and D both contain option 3 which contradicts what I said in my breakdown of the question. We’re left with the correct answer: answer choice B: I and II only 73) Based on what we read in the passage, calcitonin is present to counteract increased plasma calcium levels. Calcitonin decreases bone resorption, even though its effect is more a method of fine-tuning, not a significant effect. When would we have decreased bone resorption? When we don’t want additional calcium in the plasma, and when we want to increase bone formation. In other words, when calcium levels in the blood plasma are high.
We did break down the question and each answer choice thoroughly. But what should we know from the content outline? Calcitonin levels increase when calcium in the plasma is high. Here’s a quick mnemonic to remember that by: CalcitonIN brings calcium IN to the bone. In other words, it promotes bone formation. We want to be thorough in breaking down each question, but knowing the content outline thoroughly also ends up saving us lots of time. 74) The parathyroid gland is the main receptor and control center for blood calcium levels. Essentially the gland detects when blood calcium levels are low, and functions to restore homeostasis. Removal of the parathyroid glands means we lose parathyroid hormone activity. Normally parathyroid hormone encourages the formation and activity of osteoclasts, and ultimately increases blood plasma calcium levels. This is no longer happening, so we’re assuming plasma calcium levels will be low.
A few notes: What was the focus of pretty much every question in this set? It was on the effect of bone resorption and bone reformation. We also tied that into calcium levels in the blood plasma and maintaining homeostasis. That was the big picture around which this passage revolved. Of course we had to know some details from our content, but everything tied back to the big picture. No need to get lost in the minutia during your first read-through of any passage. The big picture is where you’ll get a bulk of your points. Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 12 75) In other words, which of the 5 species given in our passage is least reliant on UV photoreceptors for communication? All of the lizards’ communication would theoretically suffer, but we want to know which would suffer the least. We’ll go back to Figure 1 in the passage, and we’re going to see the degree to which the dewlaps of the five species reflected UV light. In theory, the lizard that exhibited the smallest reflectance percentage would be least affected. Species E only has a reflectance percentage slightly above 10% at a wavelength of 360 nm. Why are we using that wavelength? The passage tells us this is the wavelength where we find UV light. Species E’s dewlaps are the least UV reflective, so species E relies on other means to visually communicate more heavily than the other species. If we eliminate UV photoreceptors in all of the species, species E would have to compensate the least. Species D, C, B, and A would all have to compensate more, in that order. We already have a predicted answer, but we also have to consider there are only 4 answer choices listed. Let’s quickly go through and make sure the answer we came up with is listed here, otherwise we’ll go with our 2nd choice. Our answer was just in reverse alphabetical order. Answer choice D matches our predicted answer. Species E would be disadvantaged the least if there were a mutation that eliminated UV photoreceptors. This question was essentially just analyzing the data given to us in Figure 1. 76) We’re asked about the position on a chromosome of the gene for UV reflectance pigment. We’re going to focus on genetics, and particularly gene position in sex chromosomes vs autosomes. The locus of a gene is the position of the gene on a chromosome. The gene for UV reflectance pigment can be found in all lizards, even if the actual dewlap itself is only found in males. The question stem mentions all of the species of lizard had X-Y chromosomal sex determination. That’s the same as in humans. Males have both an X and a Y chromosome, females have X-chromosomes only. But again, even though males are the only ones with the dewlap, females can still have the pigment gene itself. We’re not told whether the gene is expressed or not.
77) This comes straight from our content. The five species are closely related. But a species is a group of living organisms consisting of similar individuals, capable of exchanging genes or interbreeding. Even though the five species are closely related and are neighbors by proximity, we’re still going to remember they’re distinct species.
78) We’re likely going to have to use the last part of our passage to revisit our results, but we’re going to have to use general knowledge to form a conclusion. We have the last part of our passage here, and we want to make a conclusion about dewlap reflectance that’s supported by the passage. There’s a relationship between UV reflectance and habitat, and the quantitative data to support this is given in Figure 1. What do we see in Figure 1 around 360 nm where we’ll find UV light? The two species that were found in the darker habitat, species D and species E, have the lowest reflectance percentage. Species A-C had the unshaded field habitat and likely more sun, and we see a higher reflectance %. We can use that conclusion and our graph to go through the 4 answer choices.
79) We can answer this question using our general knowledge of evolution, and natural selection. Even though this can be tangentially related to the passage, this could almost be a standalone question. Natural selection is the reproduction of individuals with favorable traits. These individuals survive environmental change because of those traits. Natural selection is an inevitable outcome of three principles:
We want to explain how dewlaps that reflect UV light would fit within this definition, and cause more offspring to be produced and survive.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Questions 80-84 80) In other words, what does decreased aldosterone do to blood volume and blood pressure? Before we jump into our content, note something the test-maker mentions in the question stem: aldosterone stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys. That means a deficiency in aldosterone would correspond to decreased sodium reabsorption; there is more sodium lost in the urine. This all comes from just reading the question stem, but we can also get into aldosterone and its role in the excretory system. What does aldosterone do? Like the test-maker mentions, aldosterone causes the tubules of the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium. It also causes an increase in the reabsorption of water into the blood. That means an increase in the volume of fluid in the body, which also corresponds to increased blood pressure. But remember, in this question we’re told we have a deficiency. That means our best answer is going to be the opposite. If we have an aldosterone deficiency, we expect a decrease in the volume of fluid in the body, and decreased blood pressure.
81) Said slightly differently: which organs produce the hormones that regulate the human menstrual cycle? The female reproductive cycle, or menstrual cycle, is the physiological change that occurs in fertile women for sexual reproduction and fertilization. It’s divided into three stages: the follicular phase, ovulation, and the luteal phase. We know a bit about each phase from our general knowledge, but we want to focus on which organs are involved specifically. Let’s look at a breakdown of the three stages: This comes straight from our science outline on our website, from content category 3B. If the writing here is too small, you should go on our website and pull up these images. I implore you to make sure you have this content down. It will make your life a lot easier. Again, we’re focused on the organs involved. That’s as simple as going through each of the stages and noting what information we can pick out. Going through the figure and keeping our question in mind. We can say: The ovarian and menstrual cycles of female reproduction are regulated by hormones produced by the hypothalamus, pituitary, and ovaries. That includes the hypothalamic releasing factors, FSH and LH, and estrogen and progesterone.
82) To answer this question, we’re going to focus on DNA replication being semi-conservative. According to the semiconservative replication model, the two original DNA strands will separate during replication. These two strands will serve as a template for a new DNA strand. That means each newly synthesized double helix is a combination of one old and one new DNA strand. We still have complementary pairs. The ratio of adenine and thymine to the ratio of guanine and cytosine are going to remain the exact same. The deoxynucleoside triphosphates themselves serve to build the new strands of DNA. The ratio of the dNTPs isn’t going to change the ratio in the daughter DNA molecule. That means the 3:1 ratio is going to remain exactly the same. We can pick the only answer choice that is consistent with that, which is answer choice D. 83) First thing we want to remember is RNA has the nucleic acid uracil, but DNA contains thymine. Next thing we want to recall is the location of transcription. In eukaryotes, that happens in the nucleus. DNA double helix unwinds near the gene being transcribed. Transcription uses one of the two exposed DNA strands as a template, and the RNA product is complementary to the template strand. That RNA product will almost be identical to the other DNA strand, except for one big difference we mentioned already. In the newly made RNA, all of the thymine nucleotides are replaced with uracil nucleotides.
84) We’re deciding which of the answer choices does not arise from the mesoderm during development. Key word is NOT, which means 3 answer choices are derived from embryonic mesoderm, and one is not. The mesoderm is one of the three tissue layers in the embryo. Like its name suggests, the mesoderm the middle tissue later and it develops into the circulatory system and connective tissues like bone, muscles, tendons, and the dermal layer. Make sure you review the figure above. There are lots of possible answers to this question, even within the broad breakdown we just did.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 13 85) We’re simply going to look at the differences between the bacteria and eukaryotic cells, and see which functions the bacteria could carry out. We have aerobic heterotrophic bacteria enter primitive eukaryotic anaerobes. Aerobes require oxygen, while anaerobes may not require oxygen for metabolism. In other words, the bacteria utilize oxygen, while the primitive eukaryotic cells do not require oxygen. That’s the major difference we see on the surface, so we’re going to look for a function that requires oxygen.
86) To answer this question, I want to address how proteins are made by mitochondria, and in the cytoplasm after being transcribed from nuclear genes. Scientists hypothesized mitochondria evolved from bacteria that entered primitive eukaryotic anaerobes. Even though most proteins in present-day mitochondria are made in the cytoplasm from mRNA transcribed from nuclear genes, the two are not mutually exclusive. Their symbiotic relationship has been evolving for millions (and probably billions) of years, so it makes sense that protein synthesis can change to a more efficient method. What’s a possible, more efficient method? Having proteins transcribed from nuclear genes instead of from mitochondria directly.
87) We’re going to reference Figure 1, just like our question stem says. We’ll see what happens to ATP synthesis if protons can move across membranes. We have Figure 1 from the passage here, and we’re told gramicidin inserts into membranes and creates a pathway for proton movement. We see protons being pumped out near the top of the image. We now have a higher concentration of hydrogen ions in the intermembrane space, and a lower concentration in the matrix. Normally the protons would want to reach equilibrium and diffuse back into the inner mitochondrial membrane. But, the protons can’t pass directly through the phospholipid bilayer of the membrane spontaneously. That’s where ATP synthetase came into the picture. Normally protons move down the concentration gradient through the protein ATP synthetase. Hydrogen ions flow down their electrochemical gradient. ATP synthetase catalyzes the addition of a phosphate to ADP, and the formation of ATP. Now alternatively, if we have an artificial pathway that allows for proton movement: we no longer than that gradient or stored energy. We’re not getting that same movement of protons down the concentration gradient and interaction with ATP synthetase. That ultimately leads to a decrease in ATP synthesis.
88) To solve this question, I’m going to use my knowledge of bacteria, and see if it lines up with a potential characteristic of mitochondria. This is a very open-ended question, so I’ll analyze each answer choice one at a time and identify any characteristic of both bacteria and mitochondria.
Both answer choices C and D are viable answers, and we’re looking for any option that’s characteristic of both mitochondria and bacteria. DNA contains important, basic genetic information. Mitochondria and bacteria having circular DNA is going to be important, just based on the significance of DNA. We likely don’t want to change anything DNA-related. Changing the method of respiration seems more likely. Answer choice D is clearly superior to answer choices A and B. But similarities in DNA trump similarities in respiration. We’re going to stick with our best answer, answer choice C. 89) We’re going to reference Figure 1 once again. We’ll see what happens to ATP synthesis if we have potassium ions in the mitochondria. We have Figure 1 from the passage here, and this is going to be very similar to Question 87. We’re going to have some changes, and decide what happens to ATP synthesis. We were given the steps in the electron transport chain in the passage, and we were told those events created both a pH gradient and an electrical potential across the membrane. Normally you have the positively charged protons in the intermembrane space on top here. That charge difference gives us that electrochemical gradient. If we have an influx of positively charged potassium ions, that electrochemical gradient no longer exists. Normally, the gradient represents a stored form of energy, and can be used to make ATP with the help of ATP synthetase. Protons move down the gradient through the protein ATP synthetase. So these positively charged hydrogen ions flow down their electrochemical gradient. ATP synthetase catalyzes the addition of a phosphate to ADP, and the formation of ATP. If we don’t have that gradient, we can’t get that same movement of protons down the gradient and interaction with ATP synthetase. That leads to a decrease in ATP synthesis.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 14 90) I can answer this question using what the author tells us in the passage about having the inverted X chromosome. We have part of our passage here. There are a few things we want to focus on. First thing we’re going to notice, is the passage says An XiY male expresses the sex ratio trait: he sires only daughters. And next paragraph says the frequency of Xi is expected to increase to 100%. If we put these two sentences together, we can establish that all males will eventually be Xi genotypes. And that means only female offspring will be produced. If only female offspring are being produced, the species will eventually die out as there are fewer and fewer males with which to mate.
91) We’re simply going to use math to solve for the proportion of offspring with different genotypes. We’re focused on XiY genotypes. We have males contributing a single Y chromosome, and we have females contributing an X chromosome.
We combine our XiY genotype proportions. We have 15% + 25% + 0%. That gives us a total of 40% This was a math problem where we did no rounding, and there are no units. Answer choice C says 40% and is consistent with our math. 92) We know any male drosophila that has the inverted X chromosome will have only daughters. That means every XiY fly will only pass the Xi chromosome onto its offspring. This also ties into the previous questions. As time progresses, there will be a predominance of females in the population. This is an open-ended question, so we’re jumping straight into our questions and using the passage if necessary.
93) First thing we want to notes is the original male was able to have both daughters and sons. That tells us right away his genotype is XsY. Why do we know that? Males with the genotype XiY can only have daughters. That eliminates half of our answer choices already. Next, we’re told roughly half the sons sire only daughters, but the other half of the sons can sire both daughters and sons. That means half the sons have XiY genotypes, and the other half have XsY genotypes. That’s the only way this works. That means half of the sons got an inverted X-chromosome from the mother, and the other half got the standard X-chromosome. That means the father is XsY and the mother is heterozygous XiXs. We can kill eliminate choices B and D right away because we said XiY males can only have daughters. Now we’re left with answer choices A and C. We said the mother has to be heterozygous if her sons have the ability to sire sons. We’re left with our correct answer, answer choice A. Answer choices B-D are all incorrect. 94) We’ll use our passage to determine when the inverted X-chromosome might not reach 100% frequency. I’ve pulled up a small excerpt from the passage here. “If none of the Xi-bearing genotypes (XiY, XiXi, or XiXs) is selected against, then the frequency of Xi is expected to increase to 100%, unless other genes act to suppress expression of e and f.” Let’s focus on this sentence in the context of our question. We were told e and f genes are expressed, but we still don’t reach 100% frequency. That can only mean one thing at this point. We’re seeing Xi-bearing genotypes selected against. That’s the only other way we keep the frequency of the inverted X-chromosome from reaching 100%.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 15 95) This is 100% a content question. The question stem is essentially giving us the definition of an endocrine system hormone. The endocrine system produces and uses chemical signals: those are hormones. Hormones travel through the bloodstream and control the actions of cells and organs.
One thing I want you to notice. Right after reading the question, I pointed out that the question stem essentially gave us the definition of an endocrine system hormone. We could’ve picked the correct answer choice at that point. But I still like to go through each answer choice. If we didn’t make that connection right away, we can still eliminate answer choices A-C with reasoning. I ultimately get to answer choice D either way, and that’s our correct answer. 96) These were the two hypotheses in the passage, so what did they seek to explain? No need to go back to the passage just yet for any details. One of the big things talked about in the passage is that several factors influenced body weight. That includes metabolism, behavior, genes, age, and environment. These all worked in conjunction, depending on the hypothesis, and influenced and determined body weight.
97) In other words, which of the two hypotheses implies a person can intentionally change their baseline body weight? Similar to our last question, we don’t have to go back to our passage just yet. Rather we’re going to rely on the big picture talked about in the passage. No need for small details. The set-point hypothesis says the body has an internal control mechanism, and body weight is maintained at a set point. That set point is predetermined. And diet and exercise can’t reset the set point over the long term. The settling point hypothesis leaves room for flexibility, and we’re told weight can be stabilized at a new level because of environmental factors, and genetic predispositions. That means we want an answer choice that’s consistent with the idea that the settling point hypothesis allows a person to alter body maintenance weight.
98) This could easily be a standalone question; all we’re doing is recalling how glycogen is metabolized. Glycogen is broken down when glucose levels are low in the blood and the body needs glucose. That’s when glycogenolysis happens. Glycogen stored in the liver is broken down to form glucose. Alternatively, the liver also store glucose as glycogen when there is excess glucose in the blood.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Questions
99-103 99) Which of the following changes would NOT interfere with the repeated transmission of an impulse at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction? To answer this question, we have to consider which changes will not interrupt a nerve impulse at the neuromuscular junction, or in other words, between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber. Key word here is not. We expect three of these answer choices will interfere with the repeated transmission of the impulse and one answer choice will not. Neuromuscular junction is a chemical synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber. Hence the name, neuromuscular. We’re focused on repeated transmission of an impulse at this junction, and muscle action. Let’s break down what happens. A motor neuron attaches to a myocyte at a motor end plate, forming a neuromuscular junction. The action potential of the neuron releases acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. Because we’re dealing with muscle action, we also know we’re dealing with the neurotransmitter acetylcholine; that’s the major neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. The acetylcholine binds membrane-bound receptors on the motor end plate, which activates ion channels.
100) Pay close attention here, we’re not asked where we find striated muscle. Skeletal muscle is also referred to as striated voluntary muscle, or skeletal striated muscle. Rather we’re asked about muscles with striated fibers specifically. Three main types of muscle: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. Only skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue has striated fibers. Skeletal muscle mostly describes muscles that attach to bones. Cardiac muscle is the muscle found on the walls of the heart. What does striated mean? That just means these muscle fibers will have a striated appearance under a microscope. There are long, fine fibers when you look at it closely. There are a lot of possibilities in terms of potential answers, but we did a good job of generally grouping the muscles here. Let’s jump into our specific options.
101) The author gives us specific values that we’ll use to solve for net volume per minute. The MCAT makes math questions a very specific way. The actual addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division isn’t hard. This isn’t testing how well you can do mental math. The test-maker wants to know if you can take the values given to you, and apply them properly. You’re going to find that you’ll likely be able to come up with any of the 4 answer choices listed if you manipulate the numbers in the question stem. That’s why it’s important to know exactly what the question’s asking us and what each number represents, so we can solve the question properly. We’re solving for net volume per minute here. First thing we’re given is tidal volume. 800 mL per breath, means 800 mL is the volume of air delivered to the lungs with each breath taken, or each respiratory cycle. But we want to know the volume of fresh air that enters the alveoli per minute. We’re told we have anatomical dead space of 150 mL. That’s the volume of air that is not entering the alveoli and exchanging with blood. Since no gas exchange happens, it’s dead space, and has to be excluded from the net air entering the alveoli per minute. We can subtract the nonalveolar respiratory system volume, that 150 mL, from the tidal volume, 800 mL. That 650 mL represents the net volume of fresh air that enters the alveoli per breath. But that’s not what we’re looking for. We want to know net volume of fresh air that enters the alveoli each minute. We have 10 breaths per minute, multiplied by our net volume of 650 mL per breath. Note the units: breaths will cancel out. We’re left with 6500 mL per minute. Our answer choice needs to be a volume per minute, so we’re happy with our final units. We did no approximating, and no rounding here. We solved for an exact value, which corresponds to answer choice C. That means answer choices A, B, and D are all incorrect, but why would anyone incorrectly pick A, B, or D? This goes back to what I said prior to the breakdown of the question. The test-maker wants to know if you can take the values given to you, and apply them properly. Answer choice A involves dividing our net volume of 650 mL per breath by our breathing rate of 10 breaths per minute. That doesn’t give us the proper units, so that’s another reason we know this is an incorrect answer choice. Answer choice B involves adding tidal volume to the anatomical dead space volume of 150 mL, then dividing by breathing rate. This also yields incorrect units. And lastly, answer choice D involves incorrectly solving for net volume of fresh air entering the alveoli by using tidal volume and breathing rate first, but that’s followed by subtracting the anatomical dead space volume. Answer choice C is the best answer. None of the math is particularly hard, like I mentioned. But the key here is to know exactly what the question’s asking us, converting our units properly, and knowing what each number represents. 102) We’ll look into muscle contraction, and specifically the roles of actin and myosin. The process is extensive and has lots of details, so we’re going to do a quick summary before jumping into our answer choices, and we’re also going to use a visual to help us demonstrate what we’re looking for. Sarcomeres make up the contractile apparatus in skeletal muscle. Myosin and actin are protein filaments that make up sarcomeres. Myosin and actin filaments overlap, and slide past each other when muscles contract and relax. We’re focused on contraction, so when a muscle contracts: actin is pulled along myosin toward the center of the sarcomere. There’s shortening of the sarcomere. Meaning there’s pulling until the actin and myosin filaments are completely overlapped. Good overview for the time being. Make sure to review the figure as necessary and recap muscular contraction if you are shaky about anything.
103) First thing I want you to do is be crystal clear about the verbiage of this question. If the optic cup doesn’t develop in the embryo, then the lens also doesn’t form. Note the order here. We don’t have one area develop in the embryo (optic cup), and subsequently we also don’t have the lens form. That’s our evidence, but what exactly is this evidence for? That’s what we’re figuring out in this question. We’re trying to determine what it means when the optic cup fails to develop and also prevents the lens from forming. You may or may not recall from your general knowledge, the optic cup developing will influence the production of the lens. In the context of this question, that makes complete sense. No optic cup means no lens, while normal optic cup means the lens forms. That ultimately means the optic cup is needed for lens production, and is possibly even the structure that induces lens production. Let’s find an answer choice consistent with our breakdown
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 16 104) If we know the mechanism, we can determine which action (or actions) are inhibited. Quick breakdown explaining ectopic pregnancies: it’s the development of a fertilized ovum outside the uterine cavity. Alternatively, in a normal pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants in the inner lining of the uterus. Why does this happen? Normally, fertilization of the ovum happens as the sperm swims up into the fallopian tubes. The embryo divides several times, and takes up to a week to reach the uterus. This doesn’t happen in ectopic pregnancy, so the drugs in the question stem will prevent the embryo from reaching the uterus.
105) We can use our passage, and specifically the symptoms and effects of ectopic pregnancy mentioned in paragraph 2. This paragraph went over the negative physical effects of ectopic pregnancy. It says “the woman may experience lower abdominal discomfort and recurrent vaginal bleeding. As rupture of the tube occurs or becomes imminent, pain becomes severe, and the woman may collapse due to internal hemorrhaging.” A little bit to unpack here. We have lower abdominal discomfort, bleeding, rupture of the fallopian tube, and internal hemorrhaging. Just going by these two sentences, the rupture and the hemorrhaging are the most severe. What is hemorrhaging? It’s severe bleeding. That sounds like a very serious issue that can ultimately be fatal.
106) To answer this question, we’ll have to focus specifically on our knowledge of different reproductive hormones and their roles. Typically, an acute rise of luteinizing hormone (LH) triggers ovulation, and development of the corpus luteum. If we have delayed secretion of LH, that could delay ovulation. That would also delay stimulation of estradiol and progesterone production by the ovaries.
107) We can go over the 3 main causes discussed in the passage, and we’ll find what they have in common. I’ve got paragraph 3 from our passage here. We have three causes mentioned in the first sentence here. It says “including abnormalities of the fallopian tube, the zygote, and the endocrine system.” The rest of the paragraph goes into detail of each, one by one. What’s the one thing they all have in common? Fallopian tube infections mean we see a partial block in the tube. The ovum doesn’t make it to the uterine cavity. Issues with the zygote mean premature attachment to the wall of the tube instead of the uterus. The ovum doesn’t make it to the uterine cavity, and if we have altered hormone levels that can decrease the motility of tubal cilia and inhibit ovum transport. Again, the ovum doesn’t make it to the uterine cavity. So our answer is going to mention the ovum not making it to the uterine cavity, and implanting elsewhere.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 17 108) We’ll have to explain the effects of vasodilation, and the effects it has on body temperature. First thing we want to do is note the environmental temperature. 33 degrees Celsius is 91 degrees Fahrenheit. If you’re not comfortable with Celsius, and you don’t know how to convert between the two, you should at least have a general sense of what some common temperatures are. Room temperature is about 70 degrees Fahrenheit and 21 degrees Celsius. Average body temperature is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit, and 37 degrees Celsius. We’re dealing with an environmental temperature that’s between the two, but closer to average body temperature. 33 degrees is a relatively hot day, and we have vasodilation, meaning blood vessels become wider. That means blood travels faster, and the vessels themselves are now closer to the surface of the skin. What does that allow our bodies to do? Radiate heat into the environment. We give off heat. This is the opposite of what happens in cold temperatures when we have vasoconstriction, with temporary periods of dilation. That’s when you want to keep vessels away from the surface of the skin. Let’s use this information, and let’s go through our answer choices.
109) In other words, which organism will have the highest body temperature in a very hot environment? If you’re unsure how hot 45 degrees Celsius is, it’s 113 degrees Fahrenheit. Make sure you’re able to at least have a ballpark figure in your head for these conversions. Our answer is going to come from our general knowledge and thermoregulation, but this is a very open-ended question and there are countless organisms the author might mention here. The one thing we do want to note, is normal human body temperature is 37 degrees Celsius. 45 degrees Celsius is hotter than most cities will reach in a given year, so we’re dealing with a truly hot environment.
110) We want to relate dehydration with proper kidney function and any aspects of kidney function discussed in the passage. I’ve added the 2nd paragraph from our passage. Let’s jump into the second sentence here, it says: “During dehydration, the kidneys may reduce their urinary output from the normal level of 1.0-1.5 L H2O/day to as little as 0.5 L H2O/day, and renal salt excretion may decline to near zero.” We’re seeing the volume of filtrate moving through the kidneys drop to 1/3 of its normal level in some cases. Blood volume and blood pressure drop, and urine has to be much more concentrated to conserve water. The body can’t continue using sweating as a cooling mechanism because of the need to conserve water and maintain a minimum blood volume to allow for basic bodily functions like delivering oxygen to body tissues. This is all to say, there are lots of issues when we have severe dehydration. The kidneys especially have to deal with a much lower volume of filtrate, and much more concentrated urine.
111) First things first, tropical conditions correspond to warmer temperatures based on the verbiage used by the test-maker. We want to explain different ways by which the human body cools itself, and how heat stroke may happen in an individual that doesn’t sweat. If we have an individual with no sweat glands, the only other way they can cool themselves (according to the passage) is by circulatory adjustment, or vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels. The fact that these individuals are likely to die of heat stroke in the tropics is a sign that sweating is pretty important. The passage mentions sweating is a type of evaporative cooling. Water and electrolytes are normally lost through sweat glands in the skin and this helps moisturize and cool the skin surface. But that’s not possible in these individuals. Rather they experience heat stroke because the only way they can cool themselves is through vasodilation.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Passage 18 112) We can flip back to our passage and see where the author mentions these two bacteria, and what potential problems are caused by their presence. A preliminary prediction we can use is that these bacteria produce protein toxins that are superantigens. These superantigens cause the release of many T cells and extreme levels of cytokines. Let’s take a look back at the passage. Top paragraph I want to emphasize it says “Most studies of these pathogens have focused on the effects of the protein toxins they produce. Chemical and biological/immunological tests indicate that these toxins are superantigens.” I already discussed how superantigens can have a negative effect. We can also focus on the lower paragraph where the author says “This increased cytokine release is probably responsible for many of the acute problems seen in TSS.” That’s exactly what we’re looking for in this question. We have superantigens that activate 20,000 times as many T cells as normal. That, in turn, causes the release of massive levels of cytokines.
113) The author mentioned high fever, hypotension, and a rash as symptoms and said TSS affects 3 organ systems. The rash shows the skin is affected. Hypotension is a sign the circulatory system is affected. The other things that are mentioned in this passage are the high fever and the issues with the immune system following the effects of superantigens. The lymphatic system is the site of many key immune system functions, so we’ll keep that in mind as a possible option.
114) We want to know the ratio of activated T cells by superantigens versus conventional antigens. We’ll have to pull up part of the passage again to get some details. Above I added the third paragraph from our passage here. We want to note that it talks about superantigens and says this “unique type of binding activates approximately 20% of the T lymphocytes, as opposed to 1 in 100,000 T cells activated by conventional antigenic stimulation.” Conventional antigenic stimulation leads to 1 in 100,000 T cells activated. Superantigens bind and activate 20% of T lymphocytes. So in the same 100,000 T cells, we’d have 20,000 activated. We can use our 20,000:1 ratio to pick the correct answer. This was a math problem with no rounding, approximation, or changing units. We can use our prediction to pick the correct answer, answer C: 20,000. 115) This is a simple math problem where we’ll compare the dosages needed of each strain to cause infection. This is a simple division problem. We can put the higher exponent on top. 1 divided by 5 is 0.2. Exponent on our 10 is going to be 5 minus 4, or 1. Multiply out and we see the ratio of bacteria A to bacteria B is 2 to 1. We need twice as much of strain A for infection. If you aren’t familiar with dealing with scientific notation, that’s completely fine. We can multiply out these numbers so they’re no longer in scientific notation. We have strain A that requires a dosage of 100,000 bacteria. Strain B requires 50,000 bacteria. We have the same ratio here when we simplify. Dosage ratio has to be 2 to 1, strain A to strain B. We still need twice as much of strain A for infection.
Biology Question Pack Volume 1: Questions 116-120 116) We can think of this question a little differently. The gallbladder helps in digestion. If the gallbladder is not present, which answer choice could not be digested, and therefore not consumed as much? In other words, what role does the gallbladder play in digestion? The liver produces bile that is stored in the gall bladder. Main function of the gallbladder we’re going to say is storing bile produced by the liver. That bile is secreted in the small intestine. Bile helps in the digestion of fats, and absorption of fats in the small intestine.
117) This is almost like a Jeopardy! style answer. We’re given a definition, and we have to supply the key term corresponding to that definition. We’re dealing with some of the eukaryotic cells’ most abundant proteins. The author specifically highlights that. Posttranslational modification of these proteins can affect the ability of the proteins to condense DNA. All we’re doing in this question is identifying which proteins the author describes in the question stem. We can use our general knowledge to focus on the mention of posttranslational modification, and condensing DNA. First thing we can focus on are the 30 nanometer fibers. Histones will package and order DNA into 30 nm structural units. These units are called nucleosome complexes, and they can control the access of proteins to the DNA regions. But does this also tie into posttranslational modifications? Modifications are actually what act as signals, or tags, for histone proteins. These chemical modifications attach to amino acids in histone proteins, or to nucleotides in DNA. They affect how tightly wound DNA is around histone proteins. For example, methylation of DNA and histones causes more tight packing, and transcription factors can’t bind DNA. Histone acetylation results in loose packing, so transcription factors can bind DNA and genes are expressed. Everything in our question stem points to histones.
118) An X-ray of the bones of a leg means we’re dealing with long bones. Long bones are bones that are longer than they are wide, so good chance that’s what we have in the leg. What distinguishing quality of a growing child’s leg bones will show up on an X-ray? In other words, how can a doctor distinguish between a growing child’s leg bones, and an adult’s leg bones? In growing, child bones we see epiphyseal plates at the ends of long bones. These plates are just the area of growth in a long bone. During development, bones get longer at epiphyseal plates by conversion of excess cartilage to bone, through ossification. Ossification, is just the process of bone formation. That means we expect cartilage near the ends in a growing child. We’d have that cartilage be fully converted to bone in adults, where we wouldn’t see cartilage in the X-ray.
119) First thing we want to remember, RNA has the nucleic acid uracil, but DNA contains thymine. Next thing we want to recall is where uridine nucleotides are incorporated into RNA. In other words, the location of transcription. In eukaryotes, that happens in the nucleus. DNA double helix unwinds near the gene being transcribed. Transcription uses one of the two exposed DNA strands as a template, and the RNA product is complementary to the template strand. That RNA product will almost be identical to the other DNA strand, except for one big difference we mentioned already. In the newly made RNA, all of the thymine nucleotides are replaced with uracil nucleotides.
120) Think of a very hot day in high humidity. What happens? We sweat! But alternatively, when we go into a swimming pool or a bath, why don’t we absorb all of the water? That’s what we’re explaining here. We don’t need to focus too much on the specific makeup of the epidermis. We’re more focused on why we’re able to sweat. We’ll start with sweating. Water and electrolytes are lost through sweat glands in the skin. That sweat has a job. It helps moisturize and cool the skin surface. Sweating is used primarily to regulate body temperature. But it assists the assists excretory system by removing waste. Main takeaway here is: sweating is the production of fluids secreted by the sweat glands in the skin. Sweat is mostly water and sodium chloride, but it’s not coming out of passageways that go into our body. Rather sweat is secreted through channels that are continuous with the epidermis. Sweat comes out through pores, but water from the outside of the body cannot use these pores as a way into our bodies.
What is a good percentage for AAMC question packs?Question packs are just content. They aren't like the exam. That being said, all I know is 80-90%+ for a 520+. The higher the better.
Do AAMC question packs help?The science Question Packs are good material, but because they're not as representative of the new test, they're not essential. If you were running out of time before your test and had to skip one piece of AAMC material, I'd recommend that you skip the science Question Packs.
Is AAMC bio Qpack 2 difficulty?The Question Packs tend to be on the easy side. The wording and structure of the questions is very similar to the real test, but there are a higher proportion of knowledge-based questions vs. comprehension questions than on the real test.
How many AAMC question packs are there?The online AAMC MCAT® Official Question Pack Bundle includes all six question packs, with 720 unique passage-based and independent questions that allow you to focus on Biology, Physics, Chemistry, and Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills.
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